WWTBAM Bored

A director of ours is German and someone gave him a Baseball puzzle that he can't answer.

Neither can I, not surprisingly.

How is it possible to have 6 hits in an inning and no runs?

Don't know if this is really what the question is asking, but....

A complete inning is comprised of both teams at bat. If players for each team reach the bases with singles, and nobody steals home (or tries, but is called out), the total for that inning would be six hits, no runs.

Batter 1 - single(hit)
Batter 2 - single (hit) Batter 1 to 2nd
Batter 3 - single (hit) Batter 1 to 3rd, Batter 2 to 2nd

Batter 1 caught stealing - 1 out

Batter 4 - single (hit) Batter 2 to 3rd, Batter 3 to 2nd

Batter 2 caught stealing - 2 out

Batter 5 - single (hit) Batter 3 to 3rd, Batter 4 to 2nd

Batter 6 - single (hit) Batter 3 runs past the plate but does not touch home. When the pitcher gets the ball back from the outfield he tosses to catcher who touches home, runner out on base running error.


Hit counts ?????

Here's what could happen. First batter gets a single then gets thrown out trying to steal second. Second batter gets a single then gets thrown out trying to steal second. The next three batters all get singles to load the bases. So far we have 5 hits, no runs, 2 out. The 6th batter hits a ground ball which hits the runner on 3rd base in fair territory. The runner is ruled out, no run scores but the batter is credited with a base hit - the 6th and final hit of the inning.

By the way it has never happened in the majors

macrae1234 wrote:Here's what could happen. First batter gets a single then gets thrown out trying to steal second. Second batter gets a single then gets thrown out trying to steal second. The next three batters all get singles to load the bases. So far we have 5 hits, no runs, 2 out. The 6th batter hits a ground ball which hits the runner on 3rd base in fair territory. The runner is ruled out, no run scores but the batter is credited with a base hit - the 6th and final hit of the inning.

By the way it has never happened in the majors

That's why, in the majors, every baserunner on third base stands in foul territory.

macrae1234 wrote:Here's what could happen. First batter gets a single then gets thrown out trying to steal second. Second batter gets a single then gets thrown out trying to steal second. The next three batters all get singles to load the bases. So far we have 5 hits, no runs, 2 out. The 6th batter hits a ground ball which hits the runner on 3rd base in fair territory. The runner is ruled out, no run scores but the batter is credited with a base hit - the 6th and final hit of the inning.

By the way it has never happened in the majors

Actually, it could hit any runner in fair territory.
10.05 (a) The official scorer shall credit a batter with a base hit when:
(5) a fair ball that has not been touched by a fielder touches a runner or an umpire, unless a runner is called out for having been touched by an Infield Fly, in which case the official scorer shall not score a hit;

What I put above is not accruate. Here is the ruling on that:
10.05 (b) The official scorer shall not credit a base hit when a:
(1) runner is forced out by a batted ball, or would have been forced out except for a fielding error;
(2) batter apparently hits safely and a runner who is forced to advance by reason of the batter becoming a runner fails to touch the first base to which such runner is advancing and is called out on appeal. The official scorer shall charge the batter with a time at bat but no hit;

Batter 6 - single (hit) Batter 3 runs past the plate but does not touch home. When the pitcher gets the ball back from the outfield he tosses to catcher who touches home, runner out on base running error.

Since this is a force play at home the batter would be on base on a fielder's choice and not a hit.

macrae1234 wrote:

Batter 6 - single (hit) Batter 3 runs past the plate but does not touch home. When the pitcher gets the ball back from the outfield he tosses to catcher who touches home, runner out on base running error.

Since this is a force play at home the batter would be on base on a fielder's choice and not a hit.

Yeah, I already looked it up and stated it was incorrect. I was just guessing.

What would happen if in that situation, 2 outs, bases loaded, the batter hits a triple down first base line. Only the first runner to touch home is the guy from second? This almost happened to the Astros where Hunter Pence was on second and took off at the crack of the bat, the guy on third went half-way to home, then started to run back as he though the right fielder was going to make the catch, but the right fielder couldn't get to it so then the runner from third starts to run home, but trips and falls with Hunter Pence almost passing him up on his slide.

Ruling had Hunter touched home first?

silvercamaro wrote:Don't know if this is really what the question is asking, but....

A complete inning is comprised of both teams at bat. If players for each team reach the bases with singles, and nobody steals home (or tries, but is called out), the total for that inning would be six hits, no runs.

Macrae's explanation aside, I bet this is the answer.

Puzzles like this are meant to be solved with the "simplest" answer (that usually involves the "twist" of figuring out EXACTLY what the question is asking) rather than actually having a knowledge of all the arcane rules of the game.

Jeemie wrote:
. . . rather than actually having a knowledge of all the arcane rules of the game.

Yep. That pretty well describes me to a T.

Remember this is a Germany question, they have as much chance of differentiating between an inning an a half inning as they do explaining the infield fly rule. Six hits in 2 half innings and no runs has a multitude of answers.

macrae1234 wrote:Remember this is a Germany question, they have as much chance of differentiating between an inning an a half inning as they do explaining the infield fly rule. Six hits in 2 half innings and no runs has a multitude of answers.

Christie did not specify that the question came from a German, but that it was directed to a German.

silvercamaro wrote:

macrae1234 wrote:Remember this is a Germany question, they have as much chance of differentiating between an inning an a half inning as they do explaining the infield fly rule. Six hits in 2 half innings and no runs has a multitude of answers.

Christie did not specify that the question came from a German, but that it was directed to a German.

That is correct.

I missed that it was here and the person was German. However, if this person usually answers somewhat esoteric sports or baseball questions then he should know the difference between an inning and a half inning and again 6 hits in 2 half innings is too simple. If the person has no clue about baseball thn why did somwone pose the question.

If the sixth hit is a home run with the bases loaded, and the batter passes one of the other runners on the basepath before a run scores, I believe the sixth hit would count (as a single), but no runs would score. This is similar to the actual ending of the Harvey Haddix 12-inning perfect game in 1959. The same may be true if any runner passes a runner ahead of him.

How about if the last batter hits a base runner with the ball?

That is what they are now discussing.

This has created a lot of debate here.

Apparently, this is a valid Q and the answer is not the clever one SC gave.

They seem to think the hitting a baserunner will the batted ball is the answer.

The runner is out but the hit counts.

Opinions? Rebuttle?

christie1111 wrote:Apparently, this is a valid Q and the answer is not the clever one SC gave.

They seem to think the hitting a baserunner will the batted ball is the answer.

The runner is out but the hit counts.

Opinions? Rebuttle?

Macrae gave you that answer 3.5 hours ago. I think that everyone agreed that it was the best answer (if the "three outs per team" was too literal).

christie1111 wrote:Apparently, this is a valid Q and the answer is not the clever one SC gave.

They seem to think the hitting a baserunner will the batted ball is the answer.

The runner is out but the hit counts.

Opinions? Rebuttle?

This is an old chestnut (I first heard it about 20 years ago), and that is, indeed, the answer. --Bob

Appa23 wrote:

christie1111 wrote:Apparently, this is a valid Q and the answer is not the clever one SC gave.

They seem to think the hitting a baserunner will the batted ball is the answer.

The runner is out but the hit counts.

Opinions? Rebuttle?

Macrae gave you that answer 3.5 hours ago. I think that everyone agreed that it was the best answer (if the "three outs per team" was too literal).

Well, this explains why I ask the Bored for help in things like this.

When I read Macae's answer it seemed to say something different, which now that I know the answer, and go back and read his response, is exactly what he said. My apologies to Macrae.

I understand the overall game of baseball, but stuff like this is like ghost trying to hook up her TV/VCR/DVR thingie conversation.

My answer to this, which probably actually has other answers, is as follows:

Begin with two batters reaching base on hits and then caught stealing: two hits, two outs, no runs.

Two singles puts runners on first and second, then an infield hit loads the bases but does not allow the lead runner to score: Five hits, two outs, no runs.

The next batter lines the ball into the nether regions of the somewhat inattentive runner at first. Runner is out, inning is over, but the batter is scored with a single. Six hits, three outs, no runs.

In TMOTTBG a few years ago, I remember asking this as the maximum number of hits a team could get in a 9 inning game without ever scoring a run.....

The baserunner being struck by a batted ball for the sixth hit is the correct answer, and I believe the only possible solution, although I'm unsure how Confessor's answer would be ruled if the runner on second passed the runner on third before touching the plate....

lb13

I think everyone's covered the bases (sic!) on this one, so here's your next one:

How can the same team make four outs in the same half-inning?

I'm talking real, official outs credited in the scorebook, not a triple play with one out or something like that. Four official outs charged to one team in one half inning.

Two wrinkles, BTW, to previous discussion: the batted ball striking a runner must strike said runner before passing a fielder other than the pitcher or catcher, otherwise it's a live ball; and Confessor is exactly right about the runner passing another rule. It's not considered a force out, and the runner is out immediately when he passes the other one. So it could be any runner passing a runner in front, as long as the run hasn't scored yet.

One more possible solution, even freakier than the others: Say the sixth batter comes up with the bases loaded, after 5 singles, two of which were erased by caught stealings or other similar plays. Batter then hits a swinging bunt down the third base line, which the third basemen is attempting to let go foul. Runner coming from third interferes with fielder attempting to field the ball, which means the runner is out, but not on a force play. By rule, the official scorer can credit the batter with a hit, if in his opinion, the batter would have reached base safely without the interference.

mrkelley23 wrote:I think everyone's covered the bases (sic!) on this one, so here's your next one:

How can the same team make four outs in the same half-inning?

I'm talking real, official outs credited in the scorebook, not a triple play with one out or something like that. Four official outs charged to one team in one half inning.

If one batter strikes out but reaches base on a wild pitch or passed ball. The pitcher is still credited with a strikeout.

elwoodblues wrote:

mrkelley23 wrote:I think everyone's covered the bases (sic!) on this one, so here's your next one:

How can the same team make four outs in the same half-inning?

I'm talking real, official outs credited in the scorebook, not a triple play with one out or something like that. Four official outs charged to one team in one half inning.

If one batter strikes out but reaches base on a wild pitch or passed ball. The pitcher is still credited with a strikeout.

I don't have much time to dredge up the actual situation before I go to work, but the fourth out actually involves an additional appeal play in a sacrifice fly situation with 1 out where a runner crosses the plate before the third out is recorded at another base, but an additional appeal play (which the defending team is allowed to take) would negate that run..... thus a legal fourth out....

lb13